MULTIPLE QUESTION FOR NEET 2017 -SOLUTION AND NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY

Q1) Molarity of a solution is expressed as:

a) the number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution. 
b) the number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent. 
c) the number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution. 
d) the ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute.

Q2) Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Osmotic pressure. 
b) Elevation of boiling point. 
c) Freezing point. 
d) Depression in freezing point.

Q3) Which of the following is not a volatile substance?

a) Camphor                   b) Petrol 
c) Acetone                    d) Acetanilide

Q4) Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:

a) obeys Raoult’s law. 
b) volume change on mixing is not equal to zero. 
c) there should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent. 
d) only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions.

Q5) The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

a) decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it. 
b) decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in it. 
c) decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it. 
d) decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

Q6) The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:

a) amount of solute. 
b) nature of solute. 
c) amount of solvent. 
d) nature of solvent.

Q7) Which of the following is not applicable for Landsberger – Walker method used for determination of molecular weight from boiling point elevation?

a) The solution should be dilute. 
b) Air should be passed at low pressure. 
c) It is applicable only for non-volatile solutes. 
d) The solute should not undergo association or dissociation.

Q8) The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:

a) kelvin kg mol^-1 
b) kelvin kg^-1 mol^-1 
c) kelvin kg mol⁺¹ 
d) kelvin kg⁺¹ mol⁺¹

Q9) Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:

a) pV = n / RT.              b) p = Vn / RT. 
c) pV = nRT.                 d) p = VnR / T.

Q10) when osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:

a) equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute. 
b) equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute. 
c) non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute. 
d) non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.

Q11) Which among the following is true?

i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point decreases. 
ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases. 
iii. When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point decreases. 
iv. When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point increases.

a) i & iii.                        b) i & iv. 
c) ii & iii.                       d) ii & iv.

Q12) Vapour pressure decreases with:

a) increase in concentration of the solution. 
b) decrease in solute particles in the solution. 
c) decrease in boiling point. 
d) increase in freezing point.

Q13) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:

a) inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids. 
b) inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquids. 
c) force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids. 
d) force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.

Q14) If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:

a) i = 1                          b) i > 1 
c) i = 0                          d) i < 1

Q15) Which of the following statements are correct:

i. colligative property depends upon number of solute of particles present in the solution. 
ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-electrolyte solute.

a) i                                b) ii 
c) Both i & ii                  d) None of the above

Q16) Addition of common salt in water causes

a) increase in M.P of solution. 
b) increase in B.P of solution. 
c) decrease in B.P of solution. 
d) decrease in both M.P & B.P.

Q17) The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:

a) glucose                     b) sucrose 
c) calcium chloride        d) sodium chloride

Q18) Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:

a) an increase in melting point of the liquid. 
b) a decrease in the boiling point of the liquid. 
c) a decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid. 
d) no change in the boiling point of the liquid.

Q19) The osmotic pressure of a solution of cane sugar is 5.07 atm at 150°C ( molecular mass = 342). What is the percent of the solution of cane sugar?

a) 5%                            b) 6% 
c) 6.75%                       d) 5.75%

Q20) What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid A at 27°C if it forms an ideal solution with another liquid B, the vapour pressure and mole fraction of pure liquid B at 27°C is 140 torr and 0.2 respectively. The total vapour pressure of the solution is 84 torr at 27°C.

a) 56 torr.                      b) 140 torr. 
c) 70 torr.                      d) 17 torr.

Q21) If 50 ml of 0.50 M NaCl solution is diluted with water to a volume of 500 ml the new concentration of solution is:

a) 0.16 M                      b) 0.05 M 
c) 0.08 M                      d) 0.04 M

Q22) Which of the following does not changes with the change in temperature? i. Mole fraction. ii. Molality.

a) None of the above.                b) Both i & ii 
c) i.                                           d) Only ii.

Q23) A solution contains 20.0g of glucose, C₆H₁₂O₆, in 100 g of water. What is the freezing point of the solution ( Kf = 1.86°C / m )?

a) – 2.06°C.                   b) – 0.20°C. 
c) + 0.32°C.                   d) – 0.32°C.

Q24) The osmotic pressure of 0.020 M solutions of KI and of sucrose ( C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ ) are 0.565 atm and 0.345 atm respectively. The Van’t Hoff factor for KI is:

a) 0.63.                         b) 1.63. 
c) 1.90.                         d) 0.90.

Q25) The Ebullioscopic constant is 0.516 K kg mol^-1. .What is the latent heat of vaporization, if the b.p of water is 100°C.

a) 7900 cal / mol. 
b) 8100 cal / mol. 
c) 9700 cal / mol. 
d) 6200 cal / mol.

Q26) The value of 0.03 M Ca(OH) ₂ required to neutralise 20 ml of 0.025 M H₃ PO₄ is

a) 25 ml.                       b) 50 ml. 
c) 40 ml.                       d) 55 ml.

Q27) Rectified spirit contains ……………. % ethanol by mass.

a) 99                             b) 91 
c) 95                             d) 98

Q28) The molarity of 4.6 N H₂SO₄ solution is:

a) 0.46 M.                     b) 0.23 M. 
c) 4.6 M.                       d) 2.3 M.

Q29) 60 ml of an acidic solution is neutralised by 30 ml of 0.4 N base. The strength of acid solution is :

a) 0.1 N.                        b) 0.3 N. 
c) 0.4 N.                        d) 0.2 N.

Q30) …………. Shows the presence of strong intermolecular forces in a liquid.

a) A low heat of vaporization. 
b) A low critical temperature. 
c) A low vapour pressure. 
d) A low boiling point.

. Q31) Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?

a) Acetone + water. 
b) Benzene + water. 
c) Ethanol + water. 
d) Acetic acid + water.

Q32) Osmotic pressure of a solution is:

a) Inversely proportional to its absolute temperature. 
b) Inversely proportional to its centigrade temperature. 
c) Directly proportional to its centigrade temperature. 
d) Directly proportional to its absolute temperature.

Q33) When 100 g of sucrose ( mol.mass = 342 ) is added to 100 g of water, the vapour pressure is lowered to 0.125 mm Hg at 25°C. What is the vapour pressure of pure water at 25°C.

a) 2.38 mm Hg. 
b) 1.15 mm Hg. 
c) 0.11 mm Hg. 
d) 23.8 mm Hg.

Q34) If the solvent boils at a temperature T₁ and the solution at a temperature T₂ , then the elevation of boiling point is given by:

a) T₁ + T₂.                      b) T₁ – T₂.

c) T₂ – T₁.                       d) None of the above.

Q35) The ratio of elevation in B.P to molality of solution is known as:

a) Molar elevation constant. 
b) Mole elevation constant. 
c) Normal elevation constant. 
d) Molal elevation constant.

Q36) Arrange the following aqueous solutions in the order of their decreasing boiling points.

i) 10-4 M Nacl. 
ii) 10-3 M urea. 
iii) 10-3 M MgCl2. 
iv) 10-2 M Nacl.

a) (ii) > (i) = (iii) < (iv). 
b) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv). 
c) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv). 
d) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i).

Q37) Molecular weight of non-volatile and soluble solute can be determined by:

a) Elevation of boiling point. 
b) Depression in freezing point. 
c) Lowering of vapour pressure. 
d) Osmotic pressure.

Q38) The boiling point of Benzene, Ethanol, Octane and Pentane are 80°C, 78°C, 126°C and 36°C respectively. Which of the following will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature.

a) Benzene.                   b) Octane. 
c) Pentane.                   d) Entahol.

Q39) When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:

a) decrease in freezing point of water. 
b) decrease in boiling point of water. 
c) increase in vapour pressure of water. 
d) all of the above.

Q40) When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing points of water?

a) Both boiling point and freezing point decreases. 
b) Both boiling point and freezing point increases. 
c) Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases. 
d) Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases.

Q41) ………….. aqueous molal solution have highest freezing point.

a) Urea 
b) Barium chloride. 
c) Potassium bromide. 
d) Aluminium sulphate.

Q42) When a thin slice of sugar beet is placed in a concentrated solution of NaCl then sugar beet will………….

a) dissolve in solution. 
b) neither absorb nor lose water. 
c) absorb water from solution. 
d) lose water from its cell.

Q43) The wrong relation between osmotic pressure (P), volume (V) and temperature (T) is:

a) P a n if T and V are constant. 
b) Pv is constant if T is constant. 
c) P a V if T is constant. 
d) P a T if V is constant.

Q44) Two solutions C and D are separated by a semi-permeable membrane. If liquid flows from D to C then.

a) Both have same concentration. 
b) D is less concentrated than C. 
c) D is more concentrated than C. 
d) None of these.

Q45) Haemolysis is the phenomenon on which cells are swelled up and then burst if placed in a:

a) isotonic solution. 
b) none of these. 
c) hypertonic solutions. 
d) hypotonic solution.

Q46) Find the molarity of 0.585g NaCl present in 500 ml of solution.

a) 0.2 M.                       b) 0.01 M. 
c) 0.1 M.                       d) 0.02 M.

Q47) If ethylene glycol is added to water in radrator cars during winter then it would lead to:

a) reducing specific heat. 
b) reducing viscosity. 
c) lowering in freezing point. 
d) lowering in boiling point.

.Q48) What is the freezing point of 0.05 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in water?

a) + 3.72°C.                   b) – 0.093°C. 
c) - 186°C.                     d) -93°C.

Q49) Unit of molarity is:

a) Kg / litre.                   b) mol / litre. 
c) gm / litre.                  d) none of these.

Q50) Which one of the following will exhibit highest osmotic pressure at 25°C?

a) KCl                           b) Glucose. 
c) Urea.                         d) Calcium chloride.

Q51) Each a- particle has the mass:

a) Equal to that of hydrogen. 
b) Nearly four times that of hydrogen atom. 
c) Half of the hydrogen atom. 
d) None of these. 

Q52) Which among the following has the highest penetrating power?

a) γ – rays                     b) ß – rays 
c) a – rays                     d) cathode rays

Q53) ß rays possess:

a) High momentum and low kinetic energy. 
b) Low momentum and high kinetic energy. 
c) Low momentum and kinetic energy. 
d) High momentum and kinetic energy.

Q54) Atoms of different elements containing the same number of neutrons but different number of total nucleons is known as:

a) Isotones                    b) Isodiaphers 
c) Isotopes                   d) Isosterism

Q55) The radius of the nucleus of any atom is related to its mass number according to the relation:

a) r = R₀A                      b) r = ½ R₀A 
c) r = R₀A ^½                                      d) r = R₀A^1/3

Q56) When a ß- particle is emitted, the new element formed is displaced ……………… position to the right in the periodic table than that of the parent element.

a) one                           b) two 
c) four                          d) None of these.

Q57) When positron is emitted by a radioactive nucleus then:

a) Atomic number remains the same. 
b) Atomic number increases by 1 unit. 
c) Atomic number decreases by 1 unit. 
d) Atomic number increases by 2 units.

Q58) Which among the following is a false statement?

a) The projectile should have light weight. 
b) The projectile should have low velocity. 
c) Both a and b 
d) None of these.

Q59) The process of conversion of stable isotope of one element into isotope of another element is known as:

a) Artificial radioactivity. 
b) Artificial transmutation. 
c) Natural radioactivity. 
d) Induced radioactivity.

Q60) The velocity of a– rays is found in the range of:

a) 1/10th to 1/20th of that of light. 
b) 1/20th to 1/30th of that of light. 
c) 1/5th to 1/10th of that of light. 
d) Both a and c.

Q61) Mark the incorrect statement about nuclear fusion?

a) Material used is D², T³. 
b) Percent efficiency is high. 
c) It can be controlled. 
d) It is not a chain process.

Q62) The speed of a chemical reaction is not affected by:

a) Temperature.                         b) Volume. 
c) Pressure.                              d) Catalyst.

Q63) Find the number of a and ß – particles emitted by ₈₈Ra²²⁶ in changing to a stable isotope of ₈₂Pb²⁰⁶.

a) 5, 4                           b) 5, 6 
c) 6, 8                           d) 3, 4

Q64) The half-life period of ₅₃I¹²⁵ is 60 days. Find the percent of the original radioactive present after 180 days.

a) 11%                          b) 12.5% 
c) 13.5%                       d) 10.5%

Q65) Calculate the percentage activity remaining after 4 years, if the half-life of cobalt - 60 is 5.26.

a) 50%                          b) 45% 
c) 59%                          d) 49%

Q66) Find the rate of disintegration of 0.001g of a sample of Ra²²⁶ if half-life period is 1620 years.

a) 4.28 x 10^-8 g per year. 
b) 4.28 x 10^-7 g per year. 
c) 3.28 x 10^-8 g per year. 
d) 3.28 x 10^-7 g per year.

Q67) Time required for Na²⁴ to lose its activity by 80% is …………… (half-life = 15 hrs)

a) 36.8 hrs.                    b) 32.8 hrs. 
c) 34.8 hrs.                    d) 33.7 hrs.

Q68) Calculate the disintegration constant for a radioactive element which takes two hours to reduce to half of its initial concentration.

a) 0.3465 hr ^-1                     b) 0.3374 hr ^-1 
c) 0.3221 hr ^-1                d) 0.323 hr ^-1

Q69) The half-life period of the element is 1.4 x 10¹⁰ years. Calculate the time in which activity of an element reduces to 90% of its original value.

a) 2.13 x 10⁹ years. 
b) 2.13 x 10⁸ years. 
c) 1.13 x 10⁹ years. 
d) 1.13 x 10⁸ years.

Q70) The total charges before and after the reaction is conserved. This relation is given by:

a) Law of conservation of mass number. 
b) Law of conservation of atomic number. 
c) Law of conservation of mass and energy. 
d) None of these.

Q71) The unit of radioactivity is:

a) Rutherford.                b) Becqurel 
c) Curie                         d) All of these.

Q72) a- particles cannot pass through thick sheets of metals because:

a) They are heavy particles. 
b) They have low penetrating power. 
c) They have high penetrating power. 
d) Both a and b.

Q73) Which among the following is a false statement about artificial radioactivity?

a) It is a non-spontaneous process. 
b) Less amount of energy is evolved. 
c) Projectiles are not required. 
d) It can be controlled.

Q74) A rock contains 0.257 mg of lead -206 for energy milligram of uranium -238. Half-life period of U²³⁸ is 4.5 x 10⁹ years. What is the age of the rock?

a) 1.8 x 10⁹ years. 
b) 2.8 x 10⁹ years. 
c) 1.7 x 10⁹ years. 
d) 2.6 x 10⁹ years.

Q75) Find the age of wood, if an old piece of wood has 25.6% as much C¹⁴ as ordinary wood today has. Half-life period of C¹⁴ is 5760 years.

a) 11329 years.  b) 11275 years. 
c) 11289 years.              d) 11212 years.

Q76) The role of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is:

a) As a moderator.        b) As a coolant. 
c) Both a and b                         d) None of these.

Q77) Nuclear fusion takes place at:

a) Low temperature. 
b) Moderate temperature. 
c) Very high temperature. 
d) Both a and b is possible.

Q78) One gram of radium is known to emit 3.7 x 10¹⁰ particles per second. The atomic mass of radium is 226. The half-life period of radium is:

a) 1582 years.               b) 1582.3 years. 
c) 1582.7 years.             d) 1582.5 years.

Q79) An a- particle is emitted from the atom of ₉₂U²³⁸. What is the number of neutrons left in the atom?

a) 140               b) 144 
c) 150               d) 156

Q80) Artificial transmutation can be carried out by particles such as:

a) Protons                     b) Deutrons 
c) Neutrons                   d) All of these.

Q81) The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by:

a) Rutherford                 b) Henry Becquerel 
c) Pierre Curie               d) Madam Curie

Q82) Co⁶⁰ is used in the treatment of:

a) Pneumonia                b) Leukaemia 
c) Cancer                      d) All of these

Q83) The number of a and ß- particles emitted in the given nuclear reaction is ₉₂U²³⁸ -> ₈₂Pb²⁰⁶

a) 8a, 6ß.                      b) 5a, 4ß. 
c) 7a, 5ß.                      d) 5a, 3ß.

Q84) When ₁₃Al ²⁷is bombarded with a- particles a radioactive isotope of phosphorus ₁₅P³⁰ is formed with the emission of:

a) Neutrons                   b) Positrons 
c) Electrons                  d) Protons

Q85) Which isotope is used for dating archeological finding?

a) ₉₂U²³⁵             b) ₁H³

c) ₈O¹⁸                           d) ₆C¹⁴

Q86) ………………. Particle is used to bombard ₁₃Al²⁷ to give ₁₅P³⁰ and a neutron.

a) Neutron.                    b) Proton. 
c) a-particle                   d) ß-particle.

Q87) Radioactive disintegration differs from a chemical change in being:

a) Nuclear process. 
b) Exothermic change. 
c) A spontaneous process. 
d) Unimolecular first order reaction.

Q88) ……………….does not contain material particles.

a) a– rays.                     b) ß– rays. 
c) γ– rays.                     d) Anode rays.

Q89) The equipment used to carry out nuclear reaction in a controlled manner is:

a) Nuclear reactor.         b) Thermonuclear fusion. 
c) Breeder reactor.         d) Cyclotron.

Q90) Which one of the following is used as neutron absorber in the nuclear reactor?

a) Cadmium                  b) Deuterium. 
c) Water.                       d) All of these

Q91) A radioactive isotope decays at such a rate that after 96 mins only 1/8th of the original amount remains. The value of t _1/2of this nuclide is:

a) 48 min                       b) 25 min 
c) 12 min                       d) 32 min.

Q92) What is the half-life period of a radioactive substance if 87.5% of it disintegrates in 40 minutes?

a) 20 min                       b) 13 min 20 sec 
c) 160 min                     d) 90 min 30 sec.

Q93) Which among the following is a positron?

a) ₊₁e⁰                           b) ₁H¹

c) _-1e⁰                            d) None of these.

Q94) Among the following, which Uranium is the most reactive?

a) ²⁴⁸U                           b) ²²⁶U

c) ²³⁵U                           d) ²³⁸U

Q95) Which of the following iodine is used in the treatment of thyroid disorders?

a) ¹³⁰I                             b) ¹³¹I

c) ¹³²I                             d) ¹²⁹I

Q96) …………..are the best bombarding particles.

a) Protons                     b) Electrons 
c) Positrons                  d) Neutrons

Q97) A loss of ß-particle results in the production of:

a) Isotopes.                  b) Isobars. 
c) Isotones.                   d) None of these.

Q98) The mass of an electron is:

a) 0.00055 a.m.u.           b) 1.0000 a.m.u. 
c) 1.0078 a.m.u.            d) 1.0086 a.m.u.

Q99) Relation between mass defect and binding energy is given by:

a) B.E. = Δm x 931 – M.    b) B.E. = Δm + 931. 
c) B.E. = Δm x 931.           d) B.E. = [m + (A-Z) mn] – M

Q100) Find the number of necleons present, if the binding energy of an element is 64 MeV. Given BE / Nucleon = 6.4.

a) 64                                         b) 10 
c) 6                                           d) 16